Q.1) What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
(a) Single tier structure of local self-government at the village level.
(b) Two tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self-government at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self-government at the village block, district and in the state levels
Q.2) Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Q.3) A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that:
(a) he obtains permission from the principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the voters’ list
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Q.4) If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Q.5) In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Q.6) The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.7) In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/ power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.8) Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Q.9) The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Q.10) The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
(1) People’s participation in development
(2) Political accountability
(3) Democratic decentralization
(4) Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.11) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its:
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Q.12) When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to:
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister
Q.13) According to the Constitution of India the term ‘district judge’ shall not include:
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judges
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Q.14) Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R) : Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q.15) The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact:
(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Q.16) Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 4 only
Q.17) The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the:
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Q.18) The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Q.19) Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Orissa
Q.20) Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge
2. The District Judge are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State
4. When the sessions judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.21. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Q.22) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? [2004]
(a) Attorney General of India–Judges of the Supreme Court–Members the of Parliament–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Attorney General of India– Members of the Parliament.
(c) Attorney General of India–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Judges of the Supreme Court– Members of Parliament.
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court–Attorney General of India–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha– Members of Parliament.
Q.23) Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q.24) Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.25) Assertion (A): In India, every State has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides a High Court in each State.
Codes:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of’ A’.
(b) Both’ A’ and ‘R’ are individually true but’ R’ is not the correct explanation of’ A’.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Q.26) Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system?
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) A. M. Ahmadi
(c) A. S. Anand
(d) P. N. Bhagwati
Q.27) Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except of the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.28) Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.29) How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Q.30) With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against there to any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.31) With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle matters at pre-litigating stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.Judiciary & Legal Rights C 31
Q.32) Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q.33) With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.34) What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.35) With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.36) The system of rural local self-government has been established in all the states of India by
(b) Acts of the state legislatures
(c) Order of the President
(d) Order of the state governors
Q.37) Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Q.38) Consider the following statements
- The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
- A Panchayat reconstituted after the dissolution continues only for the remaining period.
Which of the statements given above correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.39) Of the various sources of income to the Gram Panchayats, one source is
(a) Income tax
(b) Sales tax
(c) Professional tax
(d) Levy duties
Q.40) Which of the following States are not covered by the Panchayati Raj?
(a) Tripura and Sikkim
(b) Manipur and Assam
(c) Meghalaya and Nagaland
(d) Assam and West Bengal
Q.41) Consider the following.
Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions were set up-to decentralise planning to village level.
Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better position to have a proper appreciation of their developmental needs.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d)A is false but R is true
Q.42) The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary item
Q.43) At the Central level, the subject of ‘urban local government’ is dealt with by the following
- Ministry of Urban Development
- Ministry of Defence
- Ministry of Home Affairs
Choose the correct answers from the codes given below
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.44) Consider the following pairs about evolution of urban local government in India.
| Act/commission/policy | Headed by |
| financial decentralisation | Lord Ripon |
| ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. | Lord Mayo |
| Royal Commission on decentralisation | Hobhouse |
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.45) Which among the following is/are constitutional bodies?
(a) Nagar Panchayat
(b) Municipal Council
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) All the above
Q.46) Consider the following statements about 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
- The act provides for the reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in every municipality in proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area.
- The act provides for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in the municipalities for SCs, STs and women.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.47) Consider the following statements.
- All questions of disqualifications of a member of a municipality shall be referred to State Election Commission.
- The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state election commission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.48) Which among the following is neither an elected body nor a statutory body?
(a) Notified Area Committee
(b) Town Area Committee
(c) Cantonment Board
(d) Township
Q.49) Who among the following is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area as per Fifth Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) State Legislature
(d) Governor
Q.50) Which of the following is called as statue of equality?
(a) Statue of Ramanujacharya.
(b) Statue of Buddha
(c) Statue of Sardar Patel
(d) Statue of Mahavir
Key Answer and Explanations will be posted on Thursday