Q.1) Who is authorised to decide over a dispute regarding disqualification of a member of Parliament?
(a) Election Commissioner
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) A Committee set up by the Parliament
Q.2) Match the following:
Parliamentary Terms
A. Starred Question
B. Unstarred Question
C. Short Notice Question
Meaning
1. One asked by a member on matters of public importance of an urgent nature
2. One for which the Concerned minister has to lay on the table a written answer
3. One for which an oral answer is required to be given by a minister on the floor of the House
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 1
Q.3) Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He needs not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within 6 months from the date of his election
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the expiry of its term
(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Q.4) Which of the following is incorrect in respect of parliamentary control over the Budget?
(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the Budget
(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President’s recommendation
(d) Parliament cannot increase a tax without the President’s recommendation
Q.5) To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration?
(a) Ordinary Bills
(b) Finance Bills
(c) Bills passed by both the Houses of the Parliament
(d) Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution
Q.6) Which of the following committees does not consist of any member from the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Public Grievances Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Q.7) Match the following:
| Parliamentary committee | Main function |
| Business Advisory Committee | Looks into the mode of public expenditure |
| Select Committee | Examines the veracity of budget estimates |
| Estimates Committee | Considers a bill and submits to the House a report on it |
| Public Accounts Committee | Prepares time table for the whole session |
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Q.8) Which of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as ‘watch-dog’ on departmental expenditure and irregularities?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Committee of Public Assurances
Q.9) A dissolution does not affect:
(a) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha
(b) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha
(c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha
(d) Any of the above
Q.10) By ‘charged’ expenditure is meant:
(a) expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India which is non-votable
(b) expenditure incurred for which payment is pending
(c) expenditure that the President can incur without Parliament’s approval
(d) the sum required to meet all expenditure proposed to be made from the Consolidated Fund of India
Q.11) At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be passed
(a) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses
(b) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses
(c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting
(d) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting
Q.12) Who among the following has the final power to maintain order within the House of People?
(a) Marshal of the House
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief of Security Staff
Q.13) Which of the following is/are the feature of parliamentary system of government?
1. The executive is collectively responsible to the legislature.
2. Executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q.14) Consider the following statements about Parliamentary System of Government in India.
1. In India, a person who is not a member of parliament cannot be appointed as minister.
2. The Prime Minister in India should be a member of Lower House of the Parliament.
3. India has no system of legal responsibility of the minister.
Identify the incorrect statements and choose the right option from the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.15) In a parliamentary system the executive is responsible
(a) Directly to the people
(b) To legislature
(c) To judiciary
(d) None of the above
Q.16) India has Parliamentary democracy system because
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
Q.17) Consider the following statements
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Speaker.
2. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Chairman.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.18) A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by which of the following?
1. adjournment
2. adjournment sine die
3. prorogation
4. dissolution
choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
Q.19) Which of the following questions answered orally in the parliament?
1. Starred question
2. Un-starred question
3. Short notice question
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.20) Consider the following statements.
A member can raise this motion/tool when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure. It should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House. It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government.
The above statements describe which of the following motion?
(a) Point of Order
(b) Motion of Thanks
(c) Censure Motion
(d) Calling attention Motion
Q.21) Which among the following makes parliamentary financial control over ministries much more detailed, close, in-depth and comprehensive?
(a) Cabinet Committees
(b) Standing Committees
(c) Select Committees
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.22) Consider the following pairs
Motion Meaning
1. Policy Cut Motion It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Re 1.
2. Economy Cut Motion It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount
3. Token Cut Motion It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100.
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.23) Consider the following statements
It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before it is submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
The above lines describe which of the following grants?
(a) Supplementary Grant
(b) Additional Grant
(c) Excess grant
(d) Vote of Credit
Q.24) Consider the following statements about parliamentary control over the Executive in financial matters.
1. Indian parliament has the power of financial control before the appropriation of grants through the enactment of the budget.
2. ‘rule of lapse’ facilitates effective financial control by the Parliament.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.25) Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion.
Reason (R): But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticise the policies and activities of the government.
In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
(a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
(d) A and R both are incorrect
Q.26) Who among the following fixes the salaries and the allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Cabinet
(d) Parliament
Q.27) Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to:
(a) elect the President of India
(b) elect the Vice-President of India
(c) adopt a Constitution amending Bill
(d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagree
Q.28) Prorogation of the House means:
(a) a House has been brought in session
(b) the session of the House has been terminated
(c) the House itself stands terminated
(d) None of the above
Q.29) The Speaker may be removed:
(a) by a resolution of a House passed by the majority of total membership of the House
(b) by a resolution of the House passed by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting
(c) by a resolution of the House moved after 14 days clear notice and passed by majority of all the then members of the House
(d) by a resolution moved after 14 days notice and passed by majority of the members present
Q.30) If a Money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within fourteen days, then:
(a) Lok Sabha will reconsider it
(b) Money Bill will be rejected
(c) President will summon a joint meeting of both the Houses to discuss it
(d) The Bill will be sent to the President for his signature and consent
Q.31) The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has:
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Q.32) The President can directly disallow a State Legislation:
(a) in case of any bill
(b) in case of money bills
(c) in case of bills reserved by the Governor for President’s assent
(d) Both (b) and (c) above
Q.33) Who among the following is a legal advisor of the State Government as provided by the Constitution?
(a) Public Prosecutor
(b) Solicitor General
(c) Advocate General
(d) Attorney General
Q.34) The Legislative Council in a State can be created or disbanded by the:
(a) State Legislative Assembly alone
(b) Parliament alone
(c) Parliament on recommendation of the State Legislature
(d) President on recommendation of the Governor
Q.35) 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad are to be elected:
(a) from a graduate constituency
(b) amongst the graduate universities of the State
(c) from the graduates of any university in any State of India, who have been residing in the State and who have been graduate of at least three years standing
(d) None of the above
Q.36) The ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by:
(a) Parliament
(b) State legislature
(c) President
(d) No one
Q.37) Point out the powers enjoyed by the President of India but not available to the Governor.
1. Diplomatic Powers.
2. Pardoning death sentence.
3. Veto power over State legislature.
4. Military powers.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.38) The Governor does not appoint:
(a) Judges of the High Court
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(d) Advocate General of the State
Q.39) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may
1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.
2. reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
3. return the Bill, other than a money Bill for reconsideration-of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.40) The limitations on the authority of the State Legislature do not include:
(a) Parliament’s authority to make laws on subjects in the State List during an Emergency
(b) Parliament’s authority to make Laws on State subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution as required by the Constitution
(c) the Governor’s discretionary power to dissolve the legislature
(d) the Governor’s power to reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President
Q.41) A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by which of the following?
- adjournment
- adjournment sine die
- prorogation
- dissolution
choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
Q.42) Consider the following pairs
| Motion | Meaning |
| Policy Cut Motion | It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Re 1. |
| Economy Cut Motion | It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount |
| Token Cut Motion | It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100. |
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.43) The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Q.44) Which among the following is authorised to change the scheme of composition of a legislative council?
(a) State legislature
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Union Executive
Q.45) Who among the following is the deciding authority for disqualifications of members of legislative assembly on the grounds mentioned in the Representation of People Act?
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Speaker of state legislature
(d) Election Commission
Q.46) Consider the following statements
- The provision of pro-tem speaker is available for both Lok Sabha and state legislature.
- The chairman of the state legislative council is appointed by the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.47) Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.48) The Speaker of the lower house of a State can step down by submitting his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Deputy Speaker of the House
(d) President
Q.49) Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.50) The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister