This is the Day-7 questions of the CAF Revision plan for prelims. The questions are based on the syllabus as provided in the schedule. Aspirants are requested to go through the detailed CAF strategy to understand the need of the UPSC prelims and to prepare well for the same. Attempt the questions honestly. The key answers and explanations of this test will be live at 9.00pm. The maximum time to attempt the 20 questions is 25 minutes.
Q.1) Consider the following pairs
| Leader | Position |
| 1. Frederick Whyte | First Speaker central legislative assembly |
| 2. Sachidanand Sinha | First Deputy Speaker central legislative assembly |
| 3. G V Mavalankar | First Speaker of Lok Sabha |
| 4. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar | First Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
Q.2) Consider the following statements
- The Speaker of Lok Sabha may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Speaker.
- The Chairman of Rajya Sabha may, at any time, resign from office by writing under her hand to the Deputy Chairman.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.3) A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by which of the following?
- adjournment
- adjournment sine die
- prorogation
- dissolution
choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
Q.4) Which of the following questions answered orally in the parliament?
- Starred question
- Un-starred question
- Short notice question
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5) Consider the following statements.
A member can raise this motion/tool when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure. It should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House. It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government.
The above statements describe which of the following motion?
(a) Point of Order
(b) Motion of Thanks
(c) Censure Motion
(d) Calling attention Motion
Q.6) Which among the following makes parliamentary financial control over ministries much more detailed, close, in-depth and comprehensive?
(a) Cabinet Committees
(b) Standing Committees
(c) Select Committees
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.7) Consider the following pairs
| Motion | Meaning |
| Policy Cut Motion | It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Re 1. |
| Economy Cut Motion | It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount |
| Token Cut Motion | It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100. |
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.8) Consider the following statements
It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before it is submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
The above lines describe which of the following grants?
(a) Supplementary Grant
(b) Additional Grant
(c) Excess grant
(d) Vote of Credit
Q.9) Consider the following statements about parliamentary control over the Executive in financial matters.
- Indian parliament has the power of financial control before the appropriation of grants through the enactment of the budget.
- ‘rule of lapse’ facilitates effective financial control by the Parliament.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.10) Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion.
Reason (R): But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticise the policies and activities of the government.
In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
(a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
(d) A and R both are incorrect
Q.11) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. concerned by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Q.12) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Q.13) Consider the following statements.
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14) The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Q.15) Who is authorised to decide over a dispute regarding disqualification of a member of Parliament?
(a) Election Commissioner
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) A committee set up by the Parliament
Q.16) The National Register of Citizens is in news often related to citizenship of which of the following states?
- Assam
- Manipur
- Meghalaya
- Tripura
Codes
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All the
Q.17) Consider the following statements about Law Commission of India.
- It is a constitutional body established by the Government of India.
- Its major function is to work for legal reform.
- The First Law Commission was established in 1834 by the British Government under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q.18) The term ‘Pre-Institution Mediation’ is often in news is related to
(a) Commercial disputes
(b) Psychological treatment
(c) Wildlife therapy
(d) Political theory
Q.19) ‘PartNIR’ is often in news is associated with
(a) G-20
(b) FATCA
(c) BRICS
(d) NSG
Q.20) BRICS countries in the Johannesburg summit (10th) had decided to establishment of the NDB Regional Office in São Paulo, Brazil. Arrange the following cities from north to south.
- Sao Paulo
- Johannesburg
- Sydney
- Montevideo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-3-1-4
(c) 1-2-4-3
(d) 1-3-2-4